MCQs in Urology Niranjan Agarwalla
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Surgical Anatomy1

  1. The lumbodorsal fascia originating from the lumbar vertebrae has got how many distinct layers:
    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. Four
(CU 3)
  1. The first abdominal branch of the aorta is:
    1. Left suprarenal artery
    2. Inferior phrenic artery
    3. Right suprarenal artery
    4. Celiac trunk
(CU 13)
  1. The gonadal arteries arise from the:
    1. Anterolateral aorta
    2. Posterolateral aorta
    3. Lateral aorta
    4. Renal artery
(CU 13)
  1. In their retroperitoneal course the gonadal arteries pass___ to the ureter on either side:
    1. Posterior
    2. Anterior
    3. Sometimes anteriorly
    4. None of ABC are true
(CU 15)
  1. The testis that drains primarily to the left para-aortic nodal region including nodes above the left renal hilum, with significant drainage to the interaortocaval region but with essentially no drainage to the right paracaval nodes is the:
    1. Left testis
    2. Right testis
    3. Both testes
    4. Neither
(CU 17)
  1. The right testis drains primarily to the interaortocaval nodal region with significant drainage to the right paracaval nodes below the right renal hilum and small but real numbers or early metastases from the right testis are distributed to the left para-aortic region. The statement is:
    1. False
    2. Sometimes true
    3. True
    4. Not true
(CU 17)
1 C
2 B
3 A
4 B
5 A
6 C
2
  1. The preganglionic sympathetic fibres of which organ course without interruption and synapse directly with its cells:
    1. Kidney
    2. Adrenal cortex
    3. Testes
    4. Adrenal medulla
(CU 18)
  1. Which part of the duodenum lies retroperitoneally?
    1. First (ascending) part
    2. Second (descending) part
    3. Third (transverse) part
    4. Whole duodenum except the first part
(CU 18)
  1. Transabdominal exposure to either kidney or ureter is accompanied by incision of the reflection of the anterior colonic visceral peritoneum along a line where it joins the posterior parietal peritoneum lateral to the colon on the posterior body wall. This line is called:
    1. White line of Toldt
    2. Line of demarcation
    3. Cocker's line
    4. Avascular line of Campbell
(CU 20)
  1. The adrenals lie ____ the perirenal (Gerota's) fascia supero-medial to either kidney:
    1. Outside
    2. Within
    3. Outside the pararenal fascia
    4. Above
(CU 20)
  1. In cases of renal ectopia, the adrenal usually is found in approximately its normal anatomic position and does not follow the kidney. This statement is:
    1. True
    2. False
(CU 21)
  1. In cases of renal agenesis, the adrenal on the involved side is usually present. It is:
    1. True
    2. False
(CU 21)
  1. The normal adult adrenal gland weighs approximately ____ gm and measures ____ cm in greatest transverse diameter:
    1. 5 gm; 2-3 cm
    2. 9 gm; 3-5 cm
    3. 4 gm; 3-4 cm
    4. 5 gm; 3-5 cm
(CU 21)
7 D
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 A
12 A
13 D
3
  1. Which adrenal gland assumes a more pyramidal shape and rests more superior to the upper pole of that kidney?
    1. Left
    2. Right
(CU 21)
  1. Which adrenal tends to lie more superior in the retroperitoneum than does the other?
    1. Left
    2. Right
(CU 21)
  1. The adrenal cortex is _____ derived and forms 80 to 90 per cent by weight of the gland:
    1. Ectodermally
    2. Mesodermally
    3. Endodermally
    4. Neural crest
(CU 21)
  1. The adrenal cortex has three layers of cells; zona reticularis (R), zona glomerulosa (G), and zona fasciculata (F). They are arranged from outside inwards in which order:
    1. GFR
    2. RFG
    3. GRF
    4. FGR
(CU 21)
  1. Aldosterone, glucocorticoids, and sex steroids are respectively produced by (Abbreviations from Q. No. 17):
    1. GFR
    2. RFG
    3. GRF
    4. FGR
(CU 21)
  1. The major arterial source of the adrenal gland is:
    1. Superior branch of inferior phrenic
    2. Branch directly from aorta
    3. Ipsilateral renal artery
    4. All of the above
(CU 22)
  1. The adrenal gland is drained by:
    1. Single large vein
    2. Two veins
    3. Three veins
    4. Four veins
(CU 22 CMCH)
  1. The adrenal vein of which side is shorter and enters directly into the inferior vena cava:
    1. Left
    2. Right
    3. Right is shorter but left one enters directly to IVC
    4. Left is shorter but right one enters directly to IVC
(CU 22)
14 B
15 B
16 B
17 A
18 A
19 D
20 A
21 B
4
  1. The normal kidney in the adult male weighs approximately:
    1. 170 gm
    2. 150 gm
    3. 135 gm
    4. 650 gm
(CU 23 JIPMER)
  1. The normal kidney in the adult female weighs approximately:
    1. 170 gm
    2. 150 gm
    3. 135 gm
    4. 650 gm
(CU 23 BHU)
  1. Which adrenal has a more crescentic shape and rests more medial to the upper pole of that kidney?
    1. Left
    2. Right
(CU 21)
  1. At birth the kidneys are irregular in contour with multiple ‘fetal lobations’. These lobations typically disappear in the ____ years of life:
    1. First
    2. Second
    3. Third
    4. Fourth
(CU 23)
  1. The ‘dromedary hump’ occurs:
    1. More commonly on the left kidney
    2. More commonly on the right kidney
    3. With equal frequency on either kidney
(CU 23 CMCH)
  1. The structures occupying the renal sinus, a space in which renal hilum opens, is/are:
    1. Urinary collecting structures
    2. Renal vessels
    3. Both A and B
    4. Only pelvis of the kidney
(CU 24)
  1. The renal medulla consists of multiple distinct conical segments, the renal ‘pyramids’ the number of _____ calyces:
    1. Major
    2. Minor
    3. Variable
    4. Total
(CU 24)
  1. The interpyramidal extensions of the renal cortex through which renal vessels enter and leave kidney parenchyma are called:
    1. Pyramids
    2. Renal columns of Bertin
    3. Dromedary hump
    4. Columns of Drummond
(CU 24)
  1. A renal lobe is defined as:
    1. A single medullary pyramid and its associated surrounding cortex
    2. Two pyramids and their associated surrounding cortex
    3. The area supplied by one segmental artery
(CU 24)
22 B
23 C
24 A
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 B
30 A
5
  1. In most individuals the right kidney lies ___ cm lower in the retroperitoneum than the left; however this is not invariable and in some instances the right kidney may be higher than the left:
    1. 2-4 cm
    2. 1-2 cm
    3. 3-5 cm
    4. 1-3 cm
(CU 24)
  1. The lower pole of the kidney is slightly pushed more anterior than the upper pol The medial aspect of each kidney is rotated anteriorly on a longitudinal axis at an angle of about _____ degrees from the true coronal plane:
    1. 45
    2. 30
    3. 15
    4. 60
(CU 26)
  1. The presence of what prevent most, but not all, large renal cancers from directly invading the liver on the right side:
    1. Specific lymphatic drainage
    2. Separate blood drainage of those structures
    3. The reflection of peritoneum that separates the liver from the kidney
    4. Liver's retroperitoneal bare spot
(CU 26)
  1. Which of the ligaments are avascular and can be divided atraumatically with safety?
    1. Splenocolic
    2. Splenorenal
    3. Hepatocolic
    4. Hepatorenal
    5. All of the above
    6. B and D
(CU 26)
  1. The anterior and posterior leaves of Gerota's fascia become fused on three sides around the kidney except:
    1. Laterally
    2. Medially
    3. Superiorly
    4. Inferiorly
(CU 26)
  1. The renal vein (V), artery (A), and pelvis (P) normally lie anteroposteriorly in which order:
    1. V, A, P
    2. P, A, V
    3. A, V, P
    4. P, V, A
(CU 27)
  1. The right renal artery is _____ than the left:
    1. Shorter
    2. Equal in length
    3. Longer
    4. Of variable length
(CU 27)
31 B
32 B
33 C
34 E
35 D
36 A
37 C
6
  1. The main renal artery divides into four or more segmental vessels, with five branches most commonly describe The first and most constant segmental division is a:
    1. Posterior branch
    2. Apical
    3. Middle
    4. Lower
    5. Upper
    6. None of the above
(CU 27)
  1. The main renal artery and each segmental arteries as well as their multiple succeeding branch arteries are all:
    1. Resistant to atherosclerosis
    2. End arteries
    3. Without anastomosis or collateral circulation
    4. B and C
(CU 27)
  1. In the kidney, the segmental arteries branch in which order:
    1. Interlobar, lobar, interlobular, arcuate
    2. Lobar, interlobar, interlobular, lobular, arcuate
    3. Lobar, interlobar, arcuate, interlobular
    4. Lobar, interlobar, arcuate, lobular
(CU 28)
  1. The afferent arterioles to the glomeruli are the branches of which artery:
    1. Lobar
    2. Interlobar
    3. Arcuate
    4. Interlobular
(CU 28)
  1. Stellate veins are ____ in renal parenchyma:
    1. Subcapsular venous plexus
    2. Interlobular venous plexus
    3. Arcuate venous plexus
    4. Extracapsular venous plexus
(CU 29)
  1. The right renal vein is ____ than the left:
    1. Longer
    2. Shorter
    3. Equal in length
(CU 29)
  1. The left renal vein is generally ____ times the length of the right:
    1. Two
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. One and half
(CU 29)
38 A
39 D
40 C
41 D
42 A
43 B
44 B
7
  1. The left renal vein tends to enter the inferior vena cava at a slightly ____ level than the right and more anterolaterally:
    1. Higher
    2. Lower
    3. Anteriorly
    4. Posteriorly
(CU 30)
  1. Variations of the main renal artery and vein are common, present in one quarter to one-third of individuals. The most common variation is the:
    1. Multiple renal veins
    2. Supernumerary renal arteries
    3. Arteriovenous fistula
    4. None of the above
(CU 30)
  1. The supernumerary renal arteries usually arise from the lateral aorta, occur perhaps more commonly on the left than the right and may enter the renal hilum or directly onto the parenchyma of one of the poles of the kidney. To which pole it is more common:
    1. Upper
    2. Middle
    3. Lower
    4. Equal frequency
(CU 30)
  1. Supernumerary renal arteries are more common in ____ and may in unusual cases arise from celiac, superior mesenteric or iliac arteries:
    1. A normally placed kidney
    2. Renal fusion
    3. An ectopic kidney
    4. Atrophic kidney
(CU 30)
  1. On the left it is more common to see the renal vein divide and send one limb anterior and one posterior to the aorta to reach the inferior vena cava. It is a so- called:
    1. Renal collar
    2. Venous collar
    3. Venous tie
    4. Aortic collar
(CU 30)
  1. From the left kidney the lymphatic trunk primarily drain into which lymph nodes:
    1. Interaortocaval
    2. Lateral paracaval
    3. Lateral paraaortic
    4. All of the above
(CU 31)
45 A
46 B
47 A
48 C
49 A
50 C
8
  1. From the right kidney the lymphatic trunk drains primarily to which lymph nodes:
    1. Lateral para-aortic
    2. Interaortocaval
    3. Lateral paracaval
    4. Both B and C
(CU 31)
  1. Some lymphatics from the ___ kidney may cross over from ____ to ____ and drain primarily into ____ lateral para-aortic lymph nodes near the ____ renal hilum, although this is not common:
    1. Right; right to left; left; left
    2. Left; left to right; right; right
    3. Left; right to left; left; left
    4. Right; left to right; right; right
(CU 31)
  1. Podocytes are specialized epithelial cells which are covered over:
    1. Bowman's capsule
    2. Malpighian corpuscle
    3. Glomerular capillaries
    4. Collecting ducts
(CU 31 BHU)
  1. With the capillary endothelium the foot process of what help to form the selective filter across which the first urinary filtrate exists the blood:
    1. Podocytes
    2. Vasa recti
    3. Macula densa
    4. Glomerular capillary network
(CU 31)
  1. Which are the first structures of the gross renal collecting system?
    1. Major calyces
    2. Minor calyces
    3. Collecting ducts
    4. Proximal tubules
(CU 32)
  1. Renal parenchymal scarring secondary to infection is typically most severe occurring often at renal poles overlying:
    1. Compound papillae
    2. Compound calyces
    3. Dromedary humps
    4. White line of Toldt
(CU 34)
51 D
52 A
53 C
54 A
55 B
56 A
9
  1. The length of the adult ureter is generally:
    1. 15-24 cm
    2. 20-30 cm
    3. 15-30 cm
    4. 24-30 cm
(CU 35 BHU JIPMER)
  1. When not distended by urine the ureteral mucosa lies in:
    1. Circular folds
    2. Longitudinal folds
    3. Spiral folds
    4. Cris-cross folds
(CU 35)
  1. In a normal state urinary effluent is ____ propelled from renal pelvis to bladder:
    1. Actively
    2. Passively
    3. Gravitationally
(CU 35)
  1. Arterial branches to the upper ureter approach from direction and to the pelvic ureter from a _____ direction:
    1. Medial: Lateral
    2. Lateral: Medial
    3. Anterior: Posterior
    4. Posterior: Anterior
(CU 38 BHU)
  1. In the abdomen the left ureter primarily drains to which lymph nodes:
    1. Right paracaval
    2. Interaortocaval
    3. Left para-aortic
(CU 38)
  1. In the abdomen the right ureter drains primarily to which lymph nodes:
    1. Right paracaval
    2. Interaortocaval
    3. Left para-aortic
    4. Both A and B
(CU 38)
  1. Within the female pelvis, the ureters are closely- related to the uterine cervix and are crossed ___ by the uterine arteries and those are at risk during hysterectomy:
    1. Posteriorly
    2. Anteriorly
    3. Medially
    4. Laterally
(CU 39)
  1. The kidney receives preganglionic sympathetic input from which spinal segments:
    1. T 10 to L 1
    2. T 12 to L 3
    3. T 8 to L 1
    4. L 1 to S 4
(CU 39)
57 D
58 B
59 A
60 A
61 C
62 D
63 B
64 C
10
  1. The primary pacemaker cells of the ureter are located in:
    1. Minor calyces
    2. Major calyces
    3. Distal tubules
    4. Renal pelvis
(CU 40)
  1. The bladder wall is frequently described as having three muscular coats. But this is true only around which part of the bladder:
    1. Dome
    2. Lateral wall
    3. Posterior wall
    4. Outlet
(CU 43)
  1. The main blood and nerve supply entering the bladder base is through:
    1. Median umbilical ligament
    2. Dorsolateral ligament
    3. Venterolateral ligament
    4. Puboprostatic ligament
(CU 45)
  1. The superior, middle and inferior vesical arteries are branches from the ____ division of the hypogastric artery:
    1. Posterior
    2. Anterior
    3. Lateral
    4. Medial
(CU 45)
  1. Reaching the bladder the ureter is crossed __ by the vas:
    1. Anteriorly
    2. Posteriorly
    3. Medially
    4. Laterally
(CU 46)
  1. The intravesical ureter is about 1.5 cm long and is divided into an intramural segment and submucosal segment. The length of the later is:
    1. 1.0 cm
    2. 0.1 cm
    3. 0.8 cm
    4. 0.5 cm
(CU 47)
  1. Waldeyer's sheath surrounds the:
    1. Juxtavesical ureter (distal 3 to 4 cm)
    2. Intravesical ureter
    3. Intramural segment of ureter
    4. Both A and C
(CU 47)
  1. The longitudinal fibres of the intravesical ureter diverge at the ureteral orifice and continue uninterrupted into the base of the bladder as:
    1. Deep trigone
    2. Superficial trigone
    3. Bell's muscle
    4. Mercier's bar
(CU 47)
65 A
66 D
67 B
68 B
69 A
70 C
71 D
72 B
11
  1. In the male the fibres of the superficial trigone terminate at the level of the verumontanum and in female, the same fibres terminate at the level of the ____:
    1. External meatus
    2. Bladder neck
    3. Midurethra
    4. Anywhere between bladder neck and external meatus
(CU 47)
  1. All the fibres forming Waldeyer's sheath continue downward uninterrupted into the base of the bladder forming the ____:
    1. Deep trigone
    2. Superficial trigone
    3. Bell's muscle
    4. Mercier's bar
(CU 47)
  1. The interureteric ridge forming the base of trigonal structure is also called:
    1. Bell's muscle
    2. Mercier's bar
    3. Rice's bar
    4. White line Toldt
(CU 47)
  1. Which is probably the weakest part of the urinary bladder?
    1. Ureteral hiatus
    2. Bladder outlet
    3. Dome of the bladder
    4. Anterior wall
(CU 48)
  1. The superficial trigone adheres firmly to the overlying mucosal layer. The deep trigone is more firmly adherent and progressively more attached to the underlying detrusor and middle circular layer of the bladder in its:
    1. Upper half
    2. Lower half
    3. Inferolateral part
    4. Superolateral part
(CU 47)
  1. Which segment of the urinary bladder is its strongest, least resilient, and most fixed part:
    1. Bladder neck
    2. Midline posteriorly at the level of the trigone
    3. Midline anteriorly at the level of the trigone
    4. Retropubic part
(CU 48)
73 A
74 A
75 B
76 A
77 B
78 B
12
  1. The only fibres that could exert any sphincteric action are the semicircular muscular fibres surrounding the ____ female urethra and proximal (Prostatomembranous) urethra in male:
    1. Proximal
    2. Distal
    3. Mid
    4. Entire
(CU 49)
  1. The bulk of the external sphincter is around the membranous urethra in the male and the mid-urethral third in the femal It is always most developed ___ ly and thinnest or incomplete ____ ly:
    1. Posterior; anterior
    2. Anterior; posterior
    3. Left laterally; right laterally
    4. Right laterally; left laterally
(CU 49)
  1. Histologically the striated muscle of the urethra has slow twitch fibres (low amplitude long time sustaining contraction) and fast twitch fibres. The former constitute about ____ per cent of the overall striated muscle mass:
    1. 65
    2. 35
    3. 50
    4. 15
(CU 50)
  1. Out of the 65 per cent fast twitch fibres of the striated urethral muscle mass ____ per cent are fatigue resistant:
    1. 15
    2. 50
    3. 35
    4. 65
(CU 50)
  1. What is the length of the male external sphincter?
    1. 1 cm
    2. 1 inch
    3. 1 mm
    4. 4 cm
(CU 50)
  1. Which part of the male urethra is the widest and most distensible?
    1. Prostatic
    2. Membranous
    3. Bulbous
    4. Penile
(CU 51)
  1. Which is the thickest segment of the male urethra?
    1. Prostatic (3 cm)
    2. Membranous (2-2.5 cm)
    3. Bulbous
    4. Penile (15 cm)
(CU 52)
  1. Which is the narrowest part in the entire male urethra?
    1. Internal meatus
    2. External meatus
    3. Membranous urethra
    4. Bulbous urethra
(CU 52, CMC, BHU)
79 D
80 B
81 B
82 A
83 B
84 A
85 B
86 B
13
  1. The bulbourethral glands lie on either side of the:
    1. Prostatic urethra
    2. Bulbous urethra
    3. Membranous urethra
    4. Fossa navicularis
(CU 52, CMC)
  1. The epithelial lining of the proximal male urethra is transitional until the level of the:
    1. Verumontanum
    2. Distal point of the membranous urethra
    3. Distal end of the prostatic urethra
    4. None of A B C
(CU 53)
  1. The female urethra is 4 cm long and is about ____ mm in diameter:
    1. 6
    2. 8
    3. 10
    4. 4
(CU 52)
  1. The prostate starts to develope at _____ week of intrauterine life:
    1. 8th
    2. 6th
    3. 10th
    4. 12th
(CU 54)
  1. The normal weight of the prostate gland is about _____:
    1. 18 gm
    2. 24 gm
    3. 30 gm
    4. 15 gm
(CU 54)
  1. Approximately ____ per cent of the weight of the prostate is a muscular mass:
    1. 20
    2. 30
    3. 40
    4. 50
(CU 55)
  1. The zonal anatomy of the prostate has been established by:
    1. Lowsly
    2. McNeal
    3. Broder
    4. Campbell
(CU 55)
  1. The main blood supply of the prostate is from:
    1. Superior vesical artery
    2. Middle vesical artery
    3. Inferior vesical artery
    4. Hypogastric artery
(CU 56)
  1. The dartos of the scrotum is a:
    1. Striated muscle
    2. Smooth muscle
    3. Mixed muscle
    4. None
(CU 58)
  1. A few strips of the skeletal muscle derived from the ____ constitute the cremasteric muscle:
    1. External oblique
    2. Internal oblique
    3. Transversus
    4. Inguinal ligament
(CU 58)
87 C
88 A
89 A
90 D
91 A
92 B
93 B
94 C
95 A
96 B
14
  1. In the genital ridge are the undifferentiated gonads. They start to differentiate into testis by which week:
    1. 6th
    2. 7th
    3. 8th
    4. 9th
(CU 58)
  1. The stretched length of the seminiferous tubule is about:
    1. 1 foot
    2. 2 feet
    3. 6 feet
    4. 3 feet
(CU 59)
  1. The ductus (Vas) deferens is a very thick, muscular duct 2 to 3 mm in diameter and about _____ inches long:
    1. 18
    2. 32
    3. 25
    4. 16
(CU 59, CMC, AllMS)
  1. Blood supply to the skin of the penis derives from:
    1. The internal pudendal arteries
    2. The femoral arteries
    3. The dorsal arteries of the penis
    4. The external iliac arteries
    5. The deep inferior epigastric arteries
(AUA 94-2)
  1. Veins that do not join the deep dorsal vein are the:
    1. Superficial dorsal vein
    2. Emissory vein
    3. Crural veins
    4. Circumflex veins
    5. Retrocoronal veins
(AUA 94-2)
  1. The ultimate branch of the internal pudendal artery is:
    1. The dorsal artery of the penis
    2. The common penile artery
    3. The cavernosal artery
    4. The urethral artery
    5. The bulbar artery
(AUA 94-2)
  1. The first branch of the pudendal nerve in the perineum is:
    1. The dorsal nerve of the penis
    2. The posterior scrotal nerve
    3. The inferior rectal nerve
    4. The perineal nerve
    5. The cavernosal nerve
(AUA 94-2)
  1. The corpora cavernosa:
    1. Contain Helicin arteries and their capillary beds
    2. Are contained within the fibrous sheath of the tunica albuginea
    3. Are drained primarily into the internal pudendal veins
    4. Contain erectile tissue that are innervated by way of the pelvic plexus
    5. Consist of separate erectile spaces
(AUA 94-2)
97 B
98 B
99 A
100 B
101 C
102 A
103 A
104 A
15
  1. The lymphatic system of penis:
    1. Following a circumcision drains the distal skin retrogradely into the glans
    2. Has large trunks along the shaft draining the glans and lying primarily within the dartos fascia
    3. Drains initially to the external iliac nodes
    4. Primarily runs with the internal pudendal vessels to reach the internal iliac nodes
    5. Is of no consequence in reoperations upon the penis
(AUA 94-2)
  1. Colles' fascia is continuous with:
    1. The superficial fascia of the anal triangle
    2. The scrotal septum
    3. The tunica dartos of the scrotum
    4. Buck's fascia of the penis
    5. Subcutaneous fat of the abdominal wall
(AUA 94-3)
  1. The perineal membrane is pierced by:
    1. The crura of the corpora cavernosa
    2. Transverse perineal arteries
    3. The dorsal vein of the penis
    4. The perineal nerve
    5. The bulbar arteries
(AUA 94-3)
  1. The puboprostatic ligaments are primarily derived from:
    1. Superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm
    2. Arcuate ligament
    3. Parietal pelvic fascia
    4. Visceral pelvic fascia
    5. Perineal membrane
  1. The muscle of the perineum not attached to the bony pelvis is the:
    1. Superficial transverse perineal muscle
    2. Deep transverse perineal muscle
    3. External anal sphincter
    4. Pyriformis muscle
    5. Ischiocavernosus muscle
(AUA 94-3)
105 A
106 C
107 E
108 D
109 C
16
  1. The nerve not involved in supplying the scrotal wall is the:
    1. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
    2. Pudendal nerve
    3. Ilioinguinal nerve
    4. Genitofemoral nerve
    5. Iliohypogastric nerve
(AUA 94-3)
  1. The membranous urethra:
    1. Is lined by simple squamous epithelium
    2. Has an outer circular striated sphincter
    3. Has no submucosal nerve
    4. Lies below the urogenital hiatus of the pelvic diaphragm
    5. Is fixed in the position by the bony attachments of the striated sphincter
(AUA 94-3)
  1. The muscle of the perineum not attached to the perineal body is the:
    1. Bulbospongiosus
    2. Ischiocavernosus
    3. Rectourethralis
    4. Striated external urethral sphincter
    5. Deep transversus perinei
(AUA 94-3)
  1. At the pelvic inlet, the true and false pelves are separated by the:
    1. Pectinet line
    2. Arcuate line
    3. Levator plate
    4. Pelvic fasciae
(CU 7 89)
  1. Which of the following form a sling that suspends the female urethra beneath the pubis?
    1. Uterosacral and pubourethral ligaments
    2. Pubovisceral and suspensory ligament of the clitoris
    3. Pubourethral and pubovisceral ligament
    4. Suspensory ligament of the clitoris and posterior urethral ligament
(CU 7 117)
  1. The kidney has how many constant vascular segments?
    1. Three
    2. Four
    3. Five
    4. Six
(CU 7 2975)
  1. The Smith's space is a space between:
    1. Skin and dartus
    2. Dartus and Buck's fascia
    3. Buck's fascia and tunica albuginea
    4. Tunica albuginea and erectile tissue
(CU 7 3377)
  1. The descending portion of the duodenum, the ______ part, is of most importance to the urologist because is lies immediately anterior to the renal hilim and pelvis.
    1. 1st
    2. 2nd
    3. 3rd
    4. 4th
(CU9-19)
110 E
111 B
112 B
113 B
114 D
115 B
116 D
117 B
17
  1. Posterolateral gluteal skin and skin in pubic region is the sensory function of _______nerv
    1. Iliohypogastric
    2. Ilioinguinal
    3. Genitofemoral
    4. Lateral cutaneous of thigh
(CU9-19)
  1. Gerota's fascia envelops kidney in all aspects except____where it is not closed but instead remains an open potential spac
    1. Inferiorly
    2. Superiorly
    3. Medially
    4. Laterally
(CU9-25)
  1. Renal hilar structures from anterior to posterior are:
    1. Renal pelvis, renal artery, renal vein
    2. Renal vein, renal artery, renal pelvis
    3. Renal vein, renal pelvis, renal artery
    4. Renal artery, renal pelvis, renal vein
(CU9-25)
  1. Typically there are 7 to 9 papillae per kidney, but this number is variable, varying from ____to____.
    1. 4-8
    2. 6-20
    3. 6-10
    4. 2-14
(CU9-31)
  1. Renal papillae are arranged in two longitudinal rows situated approximately—degree from one another.
    1. 90
    2. 60
    3. 100
    4. 45
(CU9-31)
  1. The progression of arterial supply in the kidney is as follows:
    1. Renal artery(RA)-Segmental artery(SA) - Interlobar artery(IA)-Arcuate artery (AA) - Interlobular artery (ILB)-Affarant artery (AFA)
    2. RA - SA - IA - AA - AFA - ILB
    3. RA - SA - AFA - ILB - AA - IA
    4. RA - SA - ILB - IA - AA - AFA
(CU9-25)
  1. Signal travel with sympathetic nerves and result in visceral type of pain referred to the sympathetic distribution of the kidney and ureter __ through __.
    1. T8, L2
    2. T9, L1
    3. T10, L1
    4. T12, L2
(CU9-37)
118 A
119 A
120 A
121 A
122 A
123 A
124 A
18
  1. There are ___ elevation of the peritoneum on the internal surface of the anterior abdominal wall when approached laparoscopically.
    1. Two
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. Five
(CU9-43)
  1. The inguinal canal transmits ___ in both sexes.
    1. Ilihypogastric nerve
    2. Ilioinguinal nerve
    3. Genitifemoral nerve
    4. All of A, B, C
(CU9-43)
  1. The muscle of trigone forms___ distinct layers.
    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 2
    4. 5
(CU9-43)
  1. In general the glands of prostate are tubuloalveolar with relatively simple branching and lined with simple____ epithelium.
    1. Cuboidal or columnar
    2. Squamous
    3. Cuboidal
    4. Columnar
(CU9-61)
  1. Anterior wall of the scrotum and labium majus are supplied by__.
    1. Ilioinguinal and genitofemoral nerves
    2. Iliohypogastric and genitofemoral
    3. Genitofemoral only
    4. Obturator and lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
(CU9-73)
  1. Scrotal lymphatics do not cross the median raphe and drain into___lymph nodes.
    1. Ipsilateral superficial
    2. Contralateral superficial
    3. Ipsilateral deep
    4. Contralateral superficial
(CU9-73)
  1. In its course to the testis, the testicular artery branches into an inferior artery, an inferior testicular artery and into a capital artery to the___ of the epididymis.
    1. Head
    2. Tail
    3. Corpus
    4. Wrong statement
(CU9-74)
  1. How many sphincters are recognized in male urethra?
    1. Two
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. Five
(CU9-1030)
125 B
126 B
127 A
128 A
129 A
130 A
131 A
132 D
19
  1. The perineal body is formed by the interconnection of ___ muscles.
    1. Two
    2. Eight
    3. Four
    4. Six
(CU9-1039)
  1. The normal volume of seminal vesicle (normal adult size is 5 - 10 X 3 -5 cm):
    1. 13 ml
    2. 9 ml
    3. 20 ml
    4. 2 ml
(CU9-1109)
  1. In the healthy, nonstressed adults, the adrenal gland weighs ___.
    1. 2000 mg
    2. 5 gm
    3. 10 gm
    4. 15 gm
(CU9-1822)
  1. The majority of boys up to 3 years of age have an external urinary meatus that is _____ French: from 4 to 10 years, it is 12 French; and in older boys, the majority have a meatus that is 14 French.
    1. 6
    2. 8
    3. 10
    4. 12
(CU9-3749)
133 B
134 A
135 B
136 C